@bgriffin wrote:
@BirdyC wrote:
But, the person being reimbursed must have suffered a loss (monetary or otherwise) or a damage. Nobody here has been able to explain how this shopper has suffered a loss of any kind. She is already "whole." She didn't suffer a monetary loss, since she's not "out of pocket" for the meal. She didn't suffer a loss or damage, since she got the meal she contracted to order and receive. She can't be "reimbursed" for the expense or loss suffered by a third party, the friend who paid for the meal. The contract between the MSC and the shopper is an agreement for the shopper to order and pay for a meal, for which the shopper would be reimbursed. If the shopper doesn't pay for the meal, it's
impossible for there to be a reimbursement--given the definition and intent of a reimbursement.
But we have explained it over and over and over and you just don't seem to understand it.
I've understood
what you've (not "you" solely, but those who are taking the same position) said. But, I don't understand--with good reason--why you're saying it. To claim that the MSC owes the shopper money that wasn't spent by the shopper flies in the face of logic. Respectfully, I don't think people are understanding the definition and intent of "reimbursement." How can the shopper be due a reimbursement when she incurred no out-of-pocket expense and no other loss? (She lost time, but she was going to lose it anyway; there's no extra loss.)
Just because the shop agreement didn't say "...reimbursement to you for monies paid out of your own pocket for the meal" doesn't mean anything, as some are asserting. That meaning is inherent in the word "reimbursement." (And, yes, I know, reimbursement isn't always given after an expense is incurred; sometimes it's before.)
Maybe I'm making my position too convoluted.
1. Shopper agreed to perform a dining shop for a $12 fee and a meal, the latter in the form of reimbursement. (Shoppers know this means they pay for the meal, and the MSC pays them back. It needn't be explicitly stated.)
2. Shopper orders the meal, makes the required observations, but someone at another table pays for the meal. (Under ordinary circumstances, the shop has just been compromised, but shopper wrangles a receipt out of the restaurant. That alone might be a violation of guidelines, but let's assume it's not.)
3. Shopper has not paid for the meal, but has received the value of the meal.
4. Shopper completes the report, for which the agreed-upon fee is $12.
4. Since the shopper didn't pay for the meal, even though she provided a receipt, there can be no reimbursement to her by the MSC.
5. If the report is accepted, the shopper receives the $12. At that point, the shopper is entirely whole. She received a meal at no cost to her, and she received the $12 fee.
Where is the loss for which she should be reimbursed? The value of her time, the fact that she now owes the friend a dinner, etc., are extraneous issues. The value of her time has already been accounted for in the meal she received at no cost and in the $12 fee she agreed to. It doesn't matter that a friend paid for the meal and not the restaurant: The result is the same. She had no-out-of-pocket expense.
But, as I said, if the legal experts, which we aren't, say you're right, I'll eat my hat.
I learn something new every day, but not everyday!
I've learned to never trust spell-check or my phone's auto-fill feature.